The Barcelona and Spain player Pedri is being pursued by both Manchester City and Arsenal, two of the biggest teams in the Premier League.
According to the Spanish newspaper Fichajes, Barcelona is seriously debating whether or not to sell Pedri this summer because of worries that his ongoing medical problems will leave him prone to injuries for the remainder of his career.
The 21-year-old is considered as one of the top midfielders in Europe and has already established himself playing for the Catalan giants after making his first team debut in 2020.
Pedri has made 120 appearances for his La Liga team and scored 17 goals, but his injury problems have prevented him from reaching his full potential and from playing more games.
This season, the midfield player has missed 13 games due to injury. He missed 41 games the season prior and 15 games the previous season. Barcelona believes that Pedri’s inability to stay injury-free season after season is a tendency.
Barcelona must decide whether to sell Pedri when his contract expires in 2026 in order to alleviate their dire financial circumstances.
A player with Pedri’s caliber and talent would be highly desired by both Pep Guardiola and Mikel Arteta.
Other midfielders that Arsenal is actively considering include Martin Zubimendi of Real Sociedad and Joao Palhinha of Fulham.
As for Man City, Pedri may be the long-term replacement for the now 32-year-old Kevin de Bruyne. The Premier League winners are reportedly close to finalizing a contract for de Bruyne’s replacement.
Pedri would be a great asset to any Premier League squad, adding creativity and incredible passing ability to whichever team he ends up playing for.